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Two metrics on the same set are said to be topologically equivalent of they have the same open sets. So if an open subset, U contained in M is open with respect to one metric if and only if it is open with respect to the other metric. Another way to think of this is two objects are topologically equivalent if one object can be continuously deformed to the other. To be more precise, a homemorphism, f, between two topological spaces is a continuous bijective map with a continuos inverse. If such a map exists between two spaces, the are topologically equivalent.

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Q: What does topologically equivalent mean?
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