The converse of "A implies B" is "B implies A".
The isosceles triangle theorem states that if two sides of a triangle are the same, then two angles of that triangle are the same.
The converse would be: if two angles of a triangle are the same, then two sides of that triangle are the same.
The converse of the isosceles triangle theorem also happens to be a provable theorem, but it is not always the case that the converse of a theorem is also true.
The Isosceles Triangle Theorem:If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite the sides are congruent.The Converse of Isosceles Triangle Theorem:If two angles of a triangle are congruent, then the sides opposite those angles are congruent.
If a triangle is isosceles, then it is equilateral. To find the converse of a conditional, you switch the antecedent ("If ____ ...") and consequent ("... then ____."). (Of course, if not ALL isosceles triangles were equilateral, then the converse would be false.)
The isosceles triangle theorem states that if two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite those sides are congruent.
Yes an isosceles triangle has two equal sides and two equal angles.
In an isosceles triangle, two angles, and therefore sides (Base Angle Theorem), are congruent. This does not mean that all isosceles triangles are also right triangles - there is only one (45, 45, 90 triangle).
converse of the isosceles triangle theorem
converse of the isosceles triangle theorem
The Isosceles Triangle Theorem:If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite the sides are congruent.The Converse of Isosceles Triangle Theorem:If two angles of a triangle are congruent, then the sides opposite those angles are congruent.
The converse is, "If a triangle is isosceles, then it is equilateral." Neither is true.
Yes, because an isosceles triangle has two equal base angles and two equal sides.
Yes, because of the base angles theorem converse: If two angles in a triangle are congruent, then the sides opposite the angles are congruent.
If a triangle is isosceles, then it is equilateral. To find the converse of a conditional, you switch the antecedent ("If ____ ...") and consequent ("... then ____."). (Of course, if not ALL isosceles triangles were equilateral, then the converse would be false.)
it depens if the isosceles triangle is a right triangle or not
The converse of Pythagoras's theorem states :- "If the square of one side of a triangle is equal to the sum of square of other two sides then the triangle is a right angled triangle""
The Pythagorean Theorem allows the mathematician to determine the value of the hypotenuse. The converse of the Pythagorean Theorem manipulates the formula so that the mathematician can use the values to determine that if the triangle is a right triangle.
The isosceles triangle theorem states that if two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite those sides are congruent.
Yes, the base angles of an isosceles triangle are always congruent. An isosceles triangle commonly has two sides that are equal in length. The base angles are the angles opposite those two equal sides of the triangle. A geometric theorem states that if two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles opposite those sides are congruent. The converse is also true.