x to the n divided by x to the n is 1. By the law of powers x to the power n divided by x to the power n is x to the power (n minus n), ie x to the power zero. Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to each other. Therefore x to the power zero = 1. (Unless x = zero!)
2n2 / n = 2n
1. All numbers to the zero power are 1. Take any number a^n we know that a^n/a^n=1 since anything divided by itself is 1. We also know the rule for division tells us a^n/a^n= a^(n-n)=a^0. so it is 1. 0^0 is usually defined as 1, but in some context people say it is indeterminate.
It isn't. You're thinking of anything to the power zero. x0 = x(n - n) which equals xn divided by xn which equals 1.
n-1 = 1/n
x to the n divided by x to the n is 1. By the law of powers x to the power n divided by x to the power n is x to the power (n minus n), ie x to the power zero. Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to each other. Therefore x to the power zero = 1. (Unless x = zero!)
The law of powers requires that xn divided by xm = x(n - m). Consider this when n = m: xn divided by xn = x(n - n), ie 1 = x0. x2 = x times x x1 = x times x divided by x ie x x0 = x divided by x = 1 x-1 = 1 divided by x = 1/x x-2 = 1/x divided by x ie 1/x2 etc
Anything to the power 0 is 1. Using the laws of powers to get to x to the power n-1 from x to the power n you divide by n; eg to get 4 squared (16) from 4 cubed (64) you divide 64 by 4. If you start with x to the power 1 and want x to the power zero, you divide by x. And x divided by x is 1.
1. All numbers to the zero power are 1. Take any number a^n we know that a^n/a^n=1 since anything divided by itself is 1. We also know the rule for division tells us a^n/a^n= a^(n-n)=a^0. so it is 1. 0^0 is usually defined as 1, but in some context people say it is indeterminate.
2n2 / n = 2n
It isn't. You're thinking of anything to the power zero. x0 = x(n - n) which equals xn divided by xn which equals 1.
Here is why any number to the zero power equals one. Consider this. a^b. it is natural to restrict a > 0, but we'll only assume that number b is any real number. We'll use the natural exponential function defined by the derivative of the exponential function. Now we have a^r=e^rln(a). And we know that e^rln(a)=e^((ln(a))^r), where a >0 and r is in the domain of all real numbers negative infinity to infinity. We can apply this definition to any number a to any power r. Particularly, a^0. By the provided definition, a^0=e^(0*ln(a))=e^0=1. Furthermore, a^1=e^(1*ln(a))=e(ln(a))=a. And a^2=(e^(ln(a))^2)=a^2. ---------------------------------- Here is a simpler approach: In general, a^n/a^m = a^(n-m) and a/a = 1. We can use these facts to prove that x^0 = 1 so long as x isn't 0. First, state the obvious: 1 = 1 Next, since any non-zero number divided by itself is one: 1 = a^n/a^n (It doesn't change how the equation looks, but for the sake of being thorough, you could subsitute (a^n/a^n) in place of 1 in the original equation.) Then, since dividing like bases requires that you subtract their exponents: a^n/a^n = a^(n-n) = a^0 Substitute (a^0) in for (a^n/a^n) and you obtain: a^0 = 1 There are two reasons "a" cannot be 0 in this proof: firstly, raising 0 to non-zero powers would still result in zero, so "a" being 0 would cause division by zero in the initial theorems we used, and secondly, 0^0 is considered undefined in itself.
1) One hundred and fifty divided by n; 2) n divided into one hundred and fifty.
For n not equal to -1, it is 1/(n+1)*xn+1 while for n = -1, it is ln(|x|), the logarithm to base e.
2
1
(4/8)/(n^3)...4/8 reduces to 1/2 so the problem reduces to (1/2)/(n^3)...Which written in simple terms is 1/n^3. Actually I made a typo the answer is 1/(2n^3) Sorry about that.