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No. The function y = x2, where the domain is the real numbers and the codomain is the non-negative reals is onto, but it is not one to one. With the exception of x = 0, it is 2-to-1. Fact, they are completely independent of one another. A function from set X to set Y is onto (or surjective) if everything in Y can be obtained by applying the function by an element of X A function from set X to set Y is one-one (or injective) if no two elements of X are taken to the same element of Y when applied by the function. Notes: 1. A function that is both onto and one-one (injective and surjective) is called bijective. 2. An injective function can be made bijective by changing the set Y to be the image of X under the function. Using this process, any function can be made to be surjective. 3. If the inverse of a surjective function is also a function, then it is bijective.
Assuming the domain and range are both the real numbers (or rationals): Yes, it is 1 to 1 Yes, it is onto and the inverse is x = (y-3)/4
A function is a mapping from one set to another such that each element from the first set is mapped onto exactly one element from the second set.
A function that maps an input onto itself is called an identity function. In other words, the output of the function is the same as the input. The identity function is represented by the equation f(x) = x.
y = x