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It does not.
If you consider a right angled triangle with minor sides of length 1 unit each, then the Pythagorean theorem shows the third side (the hypotenuse) is sqrt(2) units in length. So the theorem proves that a side of such a length does exist. However, it does not prove that the answer is irrational. The same applies for some other Irrational Numbers.
What else can I help you with?
How do you prove the hypotenuse leg theorem without using Pythagorean theorem?
I have to prove http://s5.tinypic.com/19ldma.jpg http://img22.imageshack.us/img22/9263/mathhlproofou4.jpg without using pythagorean theorem
Does pythagorean theorem prove a triangle to be a right triangle?
Yes
What type of triangle proves the pythagorean theorerm?
The Pythagorean Theorem applies only to right triangles. (But they don't prove it.)
When did James Garfield prove the pythagorean theorem?
Somewhere around 1875 and 1876
Why was Pythagorean Theorem become necessary to incorporate in the number system?
Your question is so confusing that I almost trashed it and am not sure yet what you want to know but I have a possible idea : consider a right triangle each of whose legs have length 1. By the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse has length equal to the square root of 2. The square root of 2 is irrational- one can prove it is not equal to any fraction of integers, yet it is obviously is a number of some kind. Thus the number system had to be extended to include numbers of this kind.
How do you prove the hypotenuse leg theorem without using Pythagorean theorem?
I have to prove http://s5.tinypic.com/19ldma.jpg http://img22.imageshack.us/img22/9263/mathhlproofou4.jpg without using pythagorean theorem
Does pythagorean theorem prove a triangle to be a right triangle?
Yes
What type of triangle proves the pythagorean theorerm?
The Pythagorean Theorem applies only to right triangles. (But they don't prove it.)
When did James Garfield prove the pythagorean theorem?
Somewhere around 1875 and 1876
How do you prove the pythagorean theorem?
For any right angle triangle its hypotenuse when squared is equal to the sum of its squared sides.
Why was Pythagorean Theorem become necessary to incorporate in the number system?
Your question is so confusing that I almost trashed it and am not sure yet what you want to know but I have a possible idea : consider a right triangle each of whose legs have length 1. By the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse has length equal to the square root of 2. The square root of 2 is irrational- one can prove it is not equal to any fraction of integers, yet it is obviously is a number of some kind. Thus the number system had to be extended to include numbers of this kind.
True or false a theroem is a statement that can be easily proved?
Neither. A theorem is a proven mathematical statement. This says nothing about how easily it can be proven. e.g. the Pythagorean Theorem is easily proven, but Fermat's Last Theorem is extremely difficult to prove.
Why are there so many ways to prove the pythagorean theorem?
Because in a right angle triangle the square of its hypotenuse is always equal to the sum of each side squared.
Can a corollary be used to prove a theorem?
Yes, the corollary to one theorem can be used to prove another theorem.
What are facts about the pythagorean theorem?
-It was made by Pythagoreas, but was discovered earlier in Asian countries, esp. China -It only has to do with right angle triangles -It leads into trig functions and is the basis of trigonometry -It is used commonly nowadays -People earlier used this to prove that not all numbers are rational!
What are the theorems and postulates you can use to prove triangles are congruent?
Pythagorean's Theorem is one of the most famous ones. It says that the two squared sides of a right triangle equal the squared side of the hypotenuse. In other words, a2 + b2 = c2
How do you prove theorem 3.6.1?
Theorem 8.11 in what book?
