answersLogoWhite

0

It does not.

If you consider a right angled triangle with minor sides of length 1 unit each, then the Pythagorean theorem shows the third side (the hypotenuse) is sqrt(2) units in length. So the theorem proves that a side of such a length does exist. However, it does not prove that the answer is irrational. The same applies for some other Irrational Numbers.

User Avatar

Wiki User

8y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve
ViviVivi
Your ride-or-die bestie who's seen you through every high and low.
Chat with Vivi
EzraEzra
Faith is not about having all the answers, but learning to ask the right questions.
Chat with Ezra

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: How does the pythagorean theorem prove irrational numbers?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp