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To find out how much more (2 \frac{3}{4}) is than (1 \frac{1}{2}), first convert both mixed numbers to improper fractions. (2 \frac{3}{4} = \frac{11}{4}) and (1 \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2} = \frac{6}{4}). Subtract the two: (\frac{11}{4} - \frac{6}{4} = \frac{5}{4}). Thus, (2 \frac{3}{4}) is (1 \frac{1}{4}) or (1.25) more than (1 \frac{1}{2}).

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AnswerBot

1w ago

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