Compute the probability of any specific sequence of hits and misses, such as HMHHHM, by multiplying the probabilities of each throw: 5/7 for each hit ("H") and 1 - 5/7 = 2/7 for each miss ("M"). Because there are four hits (and therefore two misses), the multiplication includes four factors of 5/7 and two factors of 2/7; briefly, the product equals 5^4 * 2^2 / 7^6. There are 15 distinct sequences of four hits and two misses. Therefore the probability of getting some sequence of exactly four hits equals 15 times this previous value: 15 * 5^4 * 2^2 / 7^6 = 37500 / 117649 = about 31.87%.
1 percent change out of 100
The probability is 71/489 = 0.145, approx.
If the probability of an event will occur is p, then the probability that it will occur in n trials is pn.(That's p raised to the n power). So if you bet on 12 numbers, then (38-12=26) numbers are empty. The probability of the ball landing on one of these empty numbers is 26/38. So (26/38)^11 = 0.01538, which is about 1.538 % or a 1 in 65 chance.
Since it's video poker, we can assume that the only cards drawn are the ones you started with. There are exactly 47 cards left in the deck. There are 6 series of draws you can get that will give you ace, queen, and 10 (3!, or 3x2x1).The number of sequences of 3 cards in a 47 card deck is 47!/44!, or 47x46x45, and since 6 of the sequences leave you with the hand you want, you have exactly 6/(47x46x45) probability to get one of them.This works out to 1 in 16,215.
Probability of hitting the bull's-eye on the next random shot after eliminating . . . - no answer . . . . . 20% - 1 answer . . . . . . 25% - 2 answers . . . . . 331/3% - 3 answers . . . . . 50% - 4 answers . . . . . 100% - 5 answers . . . . . zero Probability of choosing the one correct answer increases significantly from these figures if you actually know something about the subject.
No. Throwing an object an hitting another person is battery. Throwing it and missing them would be considered assault.
A 360 throwing knife is way harder. For a throwing knife you have to luckily pinpoint your enemy exactly. For a no scope you nor your enemy know where the bullet is going so it's a higher chance of hitting them.
No. Probability is defined as a number between 0 and 1 (100 percent). If you have four oil wells, each with a probability of hitting being 30%, then the probability of at least one hitting is 100% - (100% - 30%)4, or about 76%.
Prison.
the question asks probability of at least one gun hitting the target. = 1 - no gun hitting the target = 1 - (1/10) x (3/10) = 97/100 or 97 %
First of all an area is a measure in 2-dimensional space and so cannot be measured in mm which is a 1-dimensional measure. So the question is improper. However, assuming that you meant square mm, then the answer depends on the assumptions that you make.First, you need, to assume that the player hits the board! You are looking for the conditional probability: the probability of hitting the bull conditional on hitting the board.You could then assume that the player throws the dart in such a way that the probability of hitting a particular area is proportional to the size of that area, then the probability of hitting the bull is 0.04 or 4%.You could instead assume that the player aims for the bull but has little control over how close the dart gets so that any distance from the centre is equally likely. Then the probability of hitting the bull is 0.2 or 20%.
To determine the probability of hitting a specific hand in poker when multiple runs are possible, you can use combinatorial mathematics to calculate the number of ways that hand can be achieved and divide it by the total number of possible outcomes. This will give you the probability of hitting that specific hand.
Hitting, fielding, throwing, catching
1 percent change out of 100
Negligible.
i think since they are mutually exclusive events the probability would by 9/10*7/10 = 63/100
probability of hitting a white key 7/12, probability of hitting a black key 5/12. Assuming all key have an equal possibility of being hit.