No. Its prime factors are 7 and 3; the sole prime factor of 8 is 2, therefore 42 cannot be divisible by 8.
28 is not a factor of 42.
Assuming you mean 8/42 then no. An improper fraction is one where the numerator is greater than the denominator; 8 (the numerator) us less than 42 (the denominator, so it is not an improper fraction. 8/42 can be simplified as there is a common factor of 2, giving 8/42 = 4/21.
No, 5 is not a factor of 42. A factor of a number divides it evenly with no remainder. When you divide 42 by 5, it does not divide evenly and leaves a remainder of 2. Therefore, 5 is not a factor of 42.
Three ways to factor 42 are factor trees, fireworks and rainbows.
The greatest common factor of 2 , 8 , 42 , and 70 = 2
The GCF of 8, 42, and 78 is 2.
the answer is 8
Factors of 8 = [1, 2, 4, 8] Factors of 42 = [1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21, 42] Therefore common factor is 2 since we don't include 1. (Question is supposed to be 'highest' common factor)
The GCF is 1.
No. Its prime factors are 7 and 3; the sole prime factor of 8 is 2, therefore 42 cannot be divisible by 8.
The greatest common factor (GCF) is: 2
The GCF of 24 and 42 is 6. The factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 24 The factors of 42 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21 and 42
Well, let's take a look at this happy little math problem. A factor is a number that can be multiplied to get another number. In this case, 6 divided by 42 leaves a remainder, so 42 is not a factor of 6. Just remember, there are no mistakes in math, just happy little accidents!
The greatest common factor (not factory!) is 2.
6 is a factor of 42.
28 is not a factor of 42.