Yes.
It doesn't make sense to have a frequency distribution WITHOUT the categories being mutually exclusive. For example, show a chart of the distribution of heights of children in a school. A given child is one specific height and so his contribution to the chart is in just one category.
An example of where it doesn't make sense: percentage of shirts seen containing each color. You might have a total well over 100% since shirts can contain several colors, and so the colors are not mutually exclusive since a given shirt can be in two color categories. The colors are not 'exclusive' because blue does not exclude white.
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The term mutually exclusive refers to 2 or more events of incidents, in which the happening of one event precludes the happening of the other. Mutually exclusive can be applied less formally to the dating world, in which a couple who has been dating become more serious, and therefore mutually exclusive with one another.
It is the opposite of mutually exclusive. Potentially inclusive are events that can happen at the same time, as mutually exclusive events can't.
no outcomes in common
No because the term mutually exclusive implies the the trials that could result in these events are sequenced in time.
If two events ARE mutually exclusive, then it means that they can not both happen simultaneously. For example, if we flip a coin, it can only be heads or tails, not both. an example of not mutually exclusive events are strong winds and rain. it could be strong wind, or rain, or both.