It depends on the diameter of the circle and the width of the square, if they are the same then the answer is no.
If you draw yourself a square then inscribe a circle with a radius of half the length of a side of the square, the circle will fit inside the square but the corners of the square will be outside the circle. Thus by inspection the area of the square is larger than the area of the circle.
Chat with our AI personalities
The answer depends on the square!
Find the total area of the square: length times height. Next, find the total area of the circle: Pi times radius to the second power, or Pi(r squared). If you are doing this by hand, 3.14 is usually acceptable for Pi. Once you have the are of both the square and the circle (the area of the circle should be smaller than that of the square), subtract the area of the circle from the area of the square. The difference is the area of those extra corners of the square that the circle does not occupy. It is actually quite simple. This demonstrates the danger of thinking in words rather than pictures.
Every mixed number is more than ' 1 '. If the radius of the circle is more than '1', then the area of the circle is more than (pi) square units.
Yes because the diameter of the circle is less than the sides of the square.
In order to even discuss this question, we must assume that the unit of the '40' is the square of the unit of the '4'. -- The radius, diameter, and circumference of the circle with an area of 40 are each 10.794% shorter than the corresponding measurement in the circle with radius = 4 . -- Its area (40) is 20.423% less than the area of the circle with the radius of 4 .