In mathematics, the variable "y" and "1y" are equivalent because "1" is the multiplicative identity, meaning any number multiplied by 1 remains unchanged. Therefore, "1y" is equivalent to just "y" as they represent the same value. This property is fundamental in algebraic manipulations and simplifications.
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Well, honey, technically speaking, "y" and "1y" are not equivalent because the "1" in front of the "y" implies multiplication. So, "y" is just "y," while "1y" means you're multiplying 1 by y, which is still just y. It's like saying you have one apple and one apple - you're still left with just one apple at the end of the day.
Oh, dude, you're hitting me with some math lingo now? Alright, so technically speaking, y and 1y are equivalent because 1 times any number is just that number. It's like saying you have one slice of Pizza versus just saying you have a slice of pizza. Same thing, just different ways of saying it.
No, "y" and "1y" are not equivalent. In financial or mathematical contexts, "y" usually represents a variable, while "1y" specifically means "1 year." They serve different purposes and cannot be used interchangeably.
y-2y8y-6 1y-2y8y-6 1y-6y-6 5y-6 1y
The expression (1y \times 1y) represents the multiplication of two quantities, each equal to (1y). This can be simplified to (1 \times 1 \times y \times y), which equals (1y^2). Therefore, (1y \times 1y = y^2).
When you have a variable by itself either it be x or y there is always an invisible place holder before it. So a normal "y" would be "1y". So when you put 1y + 1y you get 2y.
The algebraic expression of: -x-1y has the same value as -x-y
Here's how it is:2y + 10 = 5y - 4ySolution:2y + 10 = 1y (subtract 5y and 4y)10 = 1y - 2y10 = -1y-1(10 = -1y)y = -10