Yes, a function needs to be one-to-one in order to have an inverse.
Two operators are opposites or inverses if their combined mapping is the identity mapping. Less technically, one mapping must reverse the effect of the other. There are problems, though, when dealing with even fairly common functions. Squaring is a function from the real numbers to the non-negative real numbers, but there is not a single inverse operation. [+sqrt and -sqrt are the two inverse functions over the range.]
The original relationship is one-to-many. It is therefore not an invertible relationship.
Y = 1/X2 ==============Can it pass the line test? * * * * * That is not the inverse, but the reciprocal. Not the same thing! The inverse is y = sqrt(x). Onless the range is resticted, the mapping is one-to-many and so not a function.
Indeterminate. How? a4b5 is the expression instead of equality. Since we are not given the equality of two variables, there is no way to determine whether it's invertible or not. Otherwise, if you are referring "a" and "b" as invertible matrices, then yes it's invertible. This all depends on the details.
What is "a 3b"? Is it a3b? or a+3b? 3ab? I think "a3b" is the following: A is an invertible matrix as is B, we also have that the matrices AB, A2B, A3B and A4B are all invertible, prove A5B is invertible. The problem is the sum of invertible matrices may not be invertible. Consider using the characteristic poly?
Yes, a function needs to be one-to-one in order to have an inverse.
If you think of a matrix as a mapping of one vector to another, by either rotation or stretching, then the determinant tells you what size one unit volume is mapped to. This also can tell you if a matrix has an inverse as at least one dimension in a non-invertible matrix will be mapped to zero, making the determinant zero.
No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.
Two operators are opposites or inverses if their combined mapping is the identity mapping. Less technically, one mapping must reverse the effect of the other. There are problems, though, when dealing with even fairly common functions. Squaring is a function from the real numbers to the non-negative real numbers, but there is not a single inverse operation. [+sqrt and -sqrt are the two inverse functions over the range.]
The original relationship is one-to-many. It is therefore not an invertible relationship.
A one-to-one function, a.k.a. an injective function.
Y = 1/X2 ==============Can it pass the line test? * * * * * That is not the inverse, but the reciprocal. Not the same thing! The inverse is y = sqrt(x). Onless the range is resticted, the mapping is one-to-many and so not a function.
Generally speaking, in mathematics, a projection is a mapping of a set (or of a mathematical structure) which is idempotent, which means that a projection is equal to its composition with itself. A projection may also refer to a mapping which has a left inverse.
"F(x) is a bijective mapping" nust be true.
Indeterminate. How? a4b5 is the expression instead of equality. Since we are not given the equality of two variables, there is no way to determine whether it's invertible or not. Otherwise, if you are referring "a" and "b" as invertible matrices, then yes it's invertible. This all depends on the details.
this question on pic