(sin(x)cot(x) - cos(x))/tan(x)
(Multiply by tan(x)/tan(x))
sin(x) - cos(x)tan(x)
(tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x))
sinx - cos(x)(sin(x)/cos(x))
(cos(x) cancels out)
sin(x) - sin(x)
0
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From the Pythagorean identity, sin2x = 1-cos2x. LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cosx/sinx LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - (cosx/sinx)(cosx/cosx) LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cos2x/(sinx cosx) LHS = (1- cos2x)/(sinx cosx) LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) [from Pythagorean identity] LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) LHS = sinx/cosx LHS = tanx [by definition] RHS = tanx LHS = RHS and so the identity is proven. Q.E.D.
(tanx+cotx)/tanx=(tanx/tanx) + (cotx/tanx) = 1 + (cosx/sinx)/(sinx/cosx)=1 + cos2x/sin2x = 1+cot2x= csc2x This is a pythagorean identity.
Use this identity sin2x+cos2x=1 sin2x=1-cos2x so sin2x/(1-cosx) =(1-cos2x)/(1-cosx) =(1-cosx)(1+cosx)/(1-cosx) =1+cosx
2
secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)