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Is the converse of a biconditional statement always true?
Yes
Can a good definition be written in biconditional form?
yes
when the biconditional statement is separated into a conditional and its converse which of these cannot be the converse Biconditional: Lines r coplanar if and only if they lie in the same plane.?
If lines lie in two planes, then the lines are coplanar.
is this biconditional true or falseToday is Wednesday if and only if yesterday was Tuesday.?
true
Is The converse of a biconditional statement is always true?
No, not always. It depends on if the original biconditional statement is true. For example take the following biconditional statement:x = 3 if and only if x2 = 9.From this biconditional statement we can extract two conditional statements (hence why it is called a bicondional statement):The Conditional Statement: If x = 3 then x2 = 9.This statement is true. However, the second statement we can extract is called the converse.The Converse: If x2=9 then x = 3.This statement is false, because x could also equal -3. Since this is false, it makes the entire original biconditional statement false.All it takes to prove that a statement is false is one counterexample.
