40*36 = 1440 is divisible (not divisable) by both. It is not the samllest such number, but that was not required by the question.
4*9=36 4*10=40 2*18=36 2*20=40 Yes, they can both be divided by 2 and 4.
6n + 4 = 40(Minus 4 on both sides)6n = 40 - 46n = 36(Divide by 6 on both sides)n = 36/6= 6
40% of 36= 40% * 36= 0.4 * 36= 14.4
40 is 111.11% of 36.
40*36 = 1440 is divisible (not divisable) by both. It is not the samllest such number, but that was not required by the question.
Well to figure out what the least common factor for 36 and 40 is to figure out the multiples for 36 and 40. Then figure a multiple that both 36 and 40 have the least value. I know you probably don't care of what I just typed so here's the answer. The LCM for 36 and 40 is 1.
4*9=36 4*10=40 2*18=36 2*20=40 Yes, they can both be divided by 2 and 4.
6n + 4 = 40(Minus 4 on both sides)6n = 40 - 46n = 36(Divide by 6 on both sides)n = 36/6= 6
Common factors of 36 and 40 are: 1, 2, and 4.
The asnwer is 36/(40%) = 36*/(40/100) = 36*100/40 = 90
If you mean 40 to 12 and 120 to 36 then they are both equivalent and in their lowest terms they are equivalent to 10 to 3
40% of 36= 40% * 36= 0.4 * 36= 14.4
36/40 = .9, so a 36 out of 40 is 90%.
To determine if 15/36 and 40/96 are equivalent, we simplify both fractions to their simplest form. First, we find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 15 and 36, which is 3. Dividing both the numerator and denominator of 15/36 by 3 gives us 5/12. Next, we find the GCD of 40 and 96, which is 8. Dividing both the numerator and denominator of 40/96 by 8 also gives us 5/12. Therefore, 15/36 and 40/96 are indeed equivalent fractions.
40 is 111.11% of 36.
90 percent of 40 is 36, since 0.90 x 40 = 36.