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No, not always. It depends on if the original biconditional statement is true. For example take the following biconditional statement:x = 3 if and only if x2 = 9.From this biconditional statement we can extract two conditional statements (hence why it is called a bicondional statement):The Conditional Statement: If x = 3 then x2 = 9.This statement is true. However, the second statement we can extract is called the converse.The Converse: If x2=9 then x = 3.This statement is false, because x could also equal -3. Since this is false, it makes the entire original biconditional statement false.All it takes to prove that a statement is false is one counterexample.
Write down 4 rows of 3 dots or 3 rows of 4 dots.
Write down 4 rows of 3 dots or 3 rows of 4 dots.
Yes. Write down 4 rows of 3 dots or 3 rows of 4 dots.
It will be 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 21 dots