No, not always. It depends on if the original biconditional statement is true. For example take the following biconditional statement:
x = 3 if and only if x2 = 9.
From this biconditional statement we can extract two conditional statements (hence why it is called a bicondional statement):
The Conditional Statement: If x = 3 then x2 = 9.
This statement is true. However, the second statement we can extract is called the converse.
The Converse: If x2=9 then x = 3.
This statement is false, because x could also equal -3. Since this is false, it makes the entire original biconditional statement false.
All it takes to prove that a statement is false is one counterexample.
Yes
false
Definition
This is not always true.
Not necessarily. If the statement is "All rectangles are polygons", the converse is "All polygons are rectangles." This converse is not true.
Yes
The conjunction of a conditional statement and its converse is known as a biconditional statement. It states that the original statement and its converse are both true.
No.
always true
always true
a condtional statement may be true or false but only in one direction a biconditional statement is true in both directions
Proof by Converse is a logical fallacy where one asserts that if the converse of a statement is true, then the original statement must also be true. However, this is not always the case as the converse of a statement may not always hold true even if the original statement is true. It is important to avoid this error in logical reasoning.
An integer n is odd if and only if n^2 is odd.
No. Consider the statement "If I'm alive, then I'm not dead." That statement is true. The converse is "If I'm not dead, then I'm alive.", which is also true.
false
Definition
This is not always true.