(y-y)/(x-x) is very simple. y-y is obviously 0. The same goes for x-x. This results in a final fraction of 0/0. This could be considered 1 because if you think about it like 2/2=1, then you would get 0/0 =1 since the numerator and the denominator are the same. It could also be considered 0 because the numerator is 0 which obviously means there is nothing.
However, the answer to this is "undefined" because anything divided by 0 is undefined.if you mean y=(x+2)/x, the range is all reals except y=1 If you mean y=x+2/x, the range is (-inf, -2sqrt(2)] U [2sqrt(2),+inf)
x = yz/(y - z)
If you mean "What is the answer to x*y when x=45 and y=1094?" then the answer is 49,230. If you mean "What is the answer to x+y when x=45 and y=1094?" then the answer is 1,139.
xy over yx can be simplified to 1. 2x over 2y can be simplified to x over y. So the final step would be to simplify 1 divided by x over y, which would just be 1 multiplied by y over x. Answer: y/x (y over x)
X goes into Y is really Y divided by X
(x,-y)
If you mean: y = x - a/x Then: y = x - ax-1 y' = 1 + ax-2 y' = 1 + a/x2 If you mean: y = (x - a)/x Then: y = 1 - ax-1 y' = ax-2 y' = a/x2
No. If it were, it would mean that x * (y/z) = (x*y)/(x*z) which is not true.
Find the derivative of Y and then divide that by the derivative of A
if you mean y=(x+2)/x, the range is all reals except y=1 If you mean y=x+2/x, the range is (-inf, -2sqrt(2)] U [2sqrt(2),+inf)
It equals n(x+y) / x*y.
Can you please claify if you mean x=y^2/ pi*cos(x) , or x=y^2/cos(pi), since they are very different sums.
T/y = x/wMultiply each side by 'x':Tw/y = x
3/y
x over y
x = yz/(y - z)
The change in y over the change in x