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Is cancer the number one worst sickness?
No, fatal familial insomnia (FFI) is. it was discovered by Pierluigi Gambetti.
What are the 3 types of love mentioned in the bible?
The three Greek words are:Agape - Principled love, not based on sentimentality or emotion, that seeks the good of others no matter what. It's this kind of love that allows us to 'love our enemies' (Matthew 5:44) and God to love us (1 John 4:9+10)Philia - Friendship/fondness (James 4:4)Storge - Familial love(love between family members) (2 Timothy 3:1+3)(Eros - 'Romantic love' is not used in the Bible.)
If according to the Bible all humans have descended from Adam and Eve has humanity been living in sin all this time by marrying relatives?
This only becomes a problem if "according to the Bible" is anything other than a bibliographic reference. Many Christian denominations do not believe in the literal truth of the Bible. It is a series of writings written over a long period (somewhere over one thousand years) it contains History, hymnody, wise sayings, poetry, an account of the end of the world, cultural rules and lots more!! It was also collected together by human beings (at the Council of Nicae) and then fiddled with later (Council of Chalcedon and during the reformation). It has been translated with various degrees of care (See: Treacle Bible and others). Adam (Hebrew for man) and Eve (Hebrew for life) are allegorical figures for the creation of humanity aside from any cultural/religious objections to their breeding the resultant in breeding of the human race would have caused our extinction long since were we the product of this tiny gene pool. So don't worry we're not the products of generations of incest. The fact is man live hundreds of years but is wasn't until The law of God came from God to Moses and Then it was all spelled out from the ten commandments to even as to go and say not to lie with animals and the same sex . The first 5 books in the new testament explains this. But as the law is unto death the new law(Jesus) is unto life.For he was before the foundations of the world. Okay, I don't actually believe in the bible, but accorrding to it, we all descended from Adam and Eve, then Noah, so according to it, yes, we are all very distantly related. I don't think it matters though. We'd be so distantly related that it truly wouldn't matter. The whole thing is silly. Adam and Eve begat Cain and Able. Cain killed Able. The Cain was banished to the "City of Man" Meaning quite clearly that others were already around and in cities when this happened. Adam and Eve were children of God. The rest were children of Man. But then God Created Man at first with Adam. It's nonsense. Any attempt to make it as anything else is wishful thinking by the brainwashed population. The Bible is an indpired work no doubt. But it is not meant to be a history book. there was a point in time were the earth wasn't populated, God allowed the marrying of relatives for a period of time, then that ceases. No Remember that God had a flood wipe out the whole earth to get rid of the sin and start over. srry u are wrong. God did not wipe out the whole earth, Noah and his family got on an ark. REMBER!!? I believe the best answer might be, "This particular story is best used as an allagory", that is, a story to which one can draw other conclusions from. Factual conclusions are usually in peril in the Book of Genisis. (Catholic response) reply-- 1.Does the Bible present Adam simply as an allegorical character representing all early mankind? answer no-- Jude 14: ?The seventh one in line from Adam, Enoch, prophesied.? (Enoch was not the seventh in line from all early mankind.) Luke 3:23-38: ?Jesus himself, when he commenced his work, was about thirty years old, being the .?.?. son of David .?.?. son of Abraham .?.?. son of Adam.? (David and Abraham are well-known historical persons. So is it not reasonable to conclude that Adam was a real person?) Gen. 5:3: ?Adam lived on for a hundred and thirty years. Then he became father to a son in his likeness, in his image, and called his name Seth.? (Seth certainly was not fathered by all early men, nor did all early men father sons at 130 years of age.) 2.--If ?the first man Adam? was simply allegorical, what about ?the last Adam,? Jesus Christ? 1?Cor. 15:45,?47: ?It is even so written: ?The first man Adam became a living soul.? The last Adam became a life-giving spirit. The first man is out of the earth and made of dust; the second man is out of heaven.? (Thus denial that Adam was a real person who sinned against God implies doubt as to the identity of Jesus Christ. Such denial leads to rejection of the reason it was necessary for Jesus to give his life for mankind. Rejection of that means repudiation of the Christian faith.) 3.--How did Jesus himself view the Genesis account? Matt. 19:4,?5: ?[Jesus] said: ?Did you not read [at Genesis 1:27; 2:24] that he who created them [Adam and Eve] from the beginning made them male and female and said, ?For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh???? (Since Jesus believed the Genesis account to be factual, should we not believe it too?) The first boilogical thing you overlook is that none of Adam and Eve's many children were biologically closer than Eve was to Adam being created from his rib bone. It was Adam's sin against God that caused his condition to decline to the point of diing. Adam was not made defective he became defective by his sin (and passed these defects on to his children). Which is why it took him 930 years to die.By the time of Moses life expectancy was much storter than in the beginning. Biological defects were so prevalent that God pointed out in his Law a restriction on marriage or intimate involvement with close relatives. This was the start of the idea you've come to understand as incest Further, the marriage of relatives is not forbidden or particularly sinful according to the Bible. In fact, there are several examples of intermarriage and childbearing between close family members. In modern parlance, we discourage marriage between relatives any closer than second cousins because of the concern over inbreeding and genetic defects. Beyond that, there's no special reason to avoid marrying a distant relative--and whether you believe the Bible, evolution, or both, ultimately you have no choice! Whoever you marry is already related to you, however distantly. [Edited by: Iszi] As a matter of fact, incest is directly forbidden in the Bible. However, this is not declared until the Law is given to Moses, in Leviticus. Below are the majority (if not all) of the forbidden sexual acts, as stated in Leviticus 18:6-23, NIV."No one is to approach any close relative to have sexual relations..."sexual relations with your mothersexual relations with your father's wife"Do not have sexual relations with your sister, either your father's daughter or your mother's daughter, whether she was born in the same home or elsewhere."sexual relations with your son's daughter or your daughter's daughter"Do not have sexual relations with the daughter of your father's wife, born to your father; she is your sister."sexual relations with your father's sistersexual relations with your mother's sister"Do not dishonor your father's brother by approaching his wife to havesexual relations..."sexual relations with your daughter-in-lawsexual relations with your brother's wife"Do not have sexual relations with both a woman and her daughter... her son's daughter or her daughter's daughter...""Do not take your wife's sister... and have sexual relations with her while your wife is living.""Do not approach a woman to have sexual relations during... her monthly period.""Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman..."sexual relations with an animalLater, a large majority of the above forbidden acts are declared punishable by either death or banishment. So, what makes Adam and Eve's children so different? The applicable legal term here would be "ex-post facto", meaning the law was passed after the fact. It wasn't until long after Adam and Eve, and all their children died... long after all but Noah and his family were wiped from the earth... not until just after the departure of the Israelites from slavery in Egypt, that these laws were passed. Why? Without being able to read the thoughts of the Almighty, we are left to presume that it wasn't until then that abstinence from such relations (aside from the homosexual or bestial) were actually feasable without limiting the reproductive capacity of the human race. As for the rest of humanity, with over six billion people living on this earth, and the above laws only written to cover about two generations up or down any given family tree, it's safe to say that not all of humanity has been living in sin through their marriages. Only those who have chosen to marry such close cousins as described above would fall into that category. [/Edit] The first answer said; "Genesis should be viewed as an allegory" I would like to tackle why that is impossible-- you may wish to read Genesis 8:5-17--What do these precise records involving events, details, and time factors prove? Simply this: The Hebrew prophet Moses, who evidently based Genesis on records he had received, was presenting facts, not a mythical allegory. Also to say that regarding Genesis is tantamount to saying that Jesus used an allegory as the foundation for Christian monogamy when he used the example of Adam and Eve. (Matthew 19:3-9; Genesis 1:27; 2:24) Also, if mankind did not have one common ancestor, the fundamental Christian doctrine of Christ?s ransom sacrifice falls.?Matthew 20:28; Romans 5:12, 17-19; 1?Corinthians 15:45. They exalt themselves above Jesus Christ, who referred to the literal Genesis account as ?truth.??John 17:17; Matthew 19:4-6. The apostle Paul also treated this Genesis account as historical. Thus he warned Christians against being deceived, as was Eve by the serpent?s cunning. (2?Corinthians 11:3) That warning would be pointless if Eve had not actually existed and been seduced. Furthermore, in urging Christian women to be in subjection, Paul said that Adam was created first and that Eve, not Adam, was deceived. (1?Timothy 2:11-14) Again, the apostle?s argument would carry no force if the Genesis account was not historical. the Genesis account takes up the beginnings of human history from the creation of the first man in 4026?B.C.E. The Sacred Writings then narrate important events down until shortly after 443?B.C.E. Then, after a gap of more than 400 years, they pick up the account again in 3?B.C.E., taking it on to about 98?C.E. Thus, from a historical viewpoint, the Scriptures span a period of 4,123 years. The first man in 4000 B.C.E? Modern man can no more agree about history than to interperet chapters in the bible. The allegory was Socratic Method which a philosopher (whose name is used to create the word "philosophy") named Philo lived in 20 B.C.E. and died in 50 C.E. (AD). Philo studied the Hebrew bible as an allegory and a direct truth. Any repetitive word or number, any symbol or proper name was to be studied for all possible connotative or alternate meanings. Not only is there anthropological proof that man did exist long before any such book was written, what makes you think modern civilization is the most advanced? Technology is very useful, even this internet can be used to create an interest in learning, even good dialogue. But to take another man's idea of what a book he DID NOT write as your own, is feeble and a characteristic of someone who is paranoid and insecure. These books called the Bible are so far beyond your comprehension, that any quote you use to defend your position, proves that you don't understand the concept of spirit. The tree of knowledge, in the story, also was forbidden. Well, if you read something, are you eating of the forbidden fruit? Or is it just accepting the consequence of seeking the truth to accept the responsibility of knowing you must die? The tree of eternal life continues to grow... We all sin, because one man (Adam) sinned. Adam willfully sinned against God. Eve was deceived, but Adam KNEW better. He and she chose to sin against God, therefore passing on Sin and Death to humans. True, all humans descend from Adam and Eve, and true all humans are sinful by birth. But there are two types of humans: Those who are sinners by birth and those who are sinners by choice. One of Adam?s sons was Cain, and one of Adam?s daughters must have become Cain?s wife. At that time in human history when humans still had outstanding physical health and vitality, as indicated by the length of their lives, the likelihood of passing on defects as a result of marrying a close relative was not great. After some 2,500 years of human history, however, when mankind?s physical condition had greatly deteriorated, God gave to Israel laws forbidding incest. Acts 17:26: ?[God] made out of one man [Adam] every nation of men, to dwell upon the entire surface of the earth.? We are all are offspring of Adam. ?Science now corroborates what most great religions have long been preaching: Human beings of all races are .?.?. descended from the same first man.??Heredity in Humans (Philadelphia and New York, 1972), Amram Scheinfeld, p.?238. ?The Bible story of Adam and Eve, father and mother of the whole human race, told centuries ago the same truth that science has shown today: that all the peoples of the earth are a single family and have a common origin.??The Races of Mankind (New York, 1978), Ruth Benedict and Gene Weltfish, p. 3. Answer You said "One of Adam?s sons was Cain, and one of Adam?s daughters must have become Cain?s" No. Adam and Eve had NO daughters. Cain must have been sleeping with his mother? But hey, God permitted it until he gave Moses a new law right? Why go through such a confusing method? Whynot just make more people at once? I mean, He IS God, right? Why did he need a rib to make a woman? Isn't that kind of morbid? And why not just make a world full of genetically seperate people and give them laws right away instead of waiting so long to give the laws to Moses? The Bible, as it is written, is a bunch of nonsense mixed with some historical facts. It's a "best effort" to explain things with what was known at the time. But the presence of facts from the Bible does not make the entire Bible true any more than the presence of whales makes the story Moby Dick true. Correction: Genesis 5:4 (King James Version) 4And the days of Adam after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters: Thus it is clear from the Bible that Adam had both sons and daughters (note the plural). Thus there was no need for the relationship described incorrectly above. Secondly if God is God, then He is sovereign to do it any way He wishes, not as we think. The Bible does contain some details which are strange to our ears, as well as some things which are offensive to some. This does not automatically make it untrue. The skeptic Voltaire scoffed at Newton for believing that man would one day travel at a speed in excess of 50 mph. This did not make it impossible. Voltaire was only ignorant. Just because we choose not to know something, does not automatically make it untrue, nor if we dislike something. I would also wish the holocaust hadn't happened. You were not to have sex with close family members back then but if u did it would have been insest It is not technically true that all people are descended from Adam and Eve. Adam may have been the first man, but there were other people on the Earth at the same time because God put a marking on Cain to protect him from them. Secondly, they had no daughters! So, that also proves it. Also, after the flood all that was left was Noah sons and their wives, so if we weren't descended from Adam and Eve, it would be OK. ANSWER You might well read the Bible and see that Cain went into the Land of Nod, and there found himself a wife! The Bible did not literally mean that Adam and Eve were his only creations, only the ones, he specifically blessed, ones that found out the answer to good and evil! Alternative answer! We are led by Biblical writings to believe the unbelievable. One, If there was merely one man and one woman in the "begining" and they had but "two" sons, just where did the daughters come from since Cain supposedly was sent into the "Land of Nod" where he found a wife! Paraphrasing the old movie and book "Inherit the Wind", "was there another creation in the next county?" Even removing the above problems, we are left with the story of Noah, and the flood! Here it seems that Noah's grandfather Methusula probably died because he could not swim? Just add up the ages given in the Bible, and you will find out that he died at age 969 in the same time as the flood, I.E. when Noah was age 600! But, all of that aside, according to the Bible, we are merely left with Noah, his wife, and his sons, daughters and their husbands/wives! Thus, the children of Noah had to marry either the first cousin or at best the second cousin if they did not marry their own aunts and uncles! Now if Noah had more than one wife, and if he had by them more than the number of children mentioned in the Bible, and if these children had the good sense to marry husbands or wives from groups of people from many differing communities and areas of the lands, then we might well have a really good mixture of genetic material to work with. Actually reality seems to support things different that most of us have assumed to be correct. Certain families it seems, married to first and or second cousins for many years and produced very normal if not superior children! Real inbredism, which creates genetic abnormalities only occurs where abnormal genetic defects start to occure with the children. This can of course, happen to almost any couple! That is the reason that in most societies of the past any child born with obvious deformaties would be killed or abandoned to die. Only the perfect child and the perfect calf was allowed to live! Read Genesis chapter 6. The answer is very simple and does not require a huge explanation. In the beginning, God commanded Adam to be fruitful. In order to populate the earth at a time where only a few people were on the earth through Adam and Eve they would have HAD to sleep with brothers and sisters. This was not as filthy and was not considered incest at this time, it was required and necessary. When the earth began to increase in number God saw that man continued to do this even though the population was great enough to marry someone who was not a brother or sister. You have two parents who also have two parents and they both have parents. Already you have eight ancestors in just three generations. Carried back to Roman times (spoken of in the Bible I hear) over 2,000 years ago you will have more ancestors than people who have ever lived. So will everyone else have the same number of ancestors. That means that somewhere back whenever one of your ancestors will have had sex with some ancestor or other of everyone else. Ergo you are related to the whole of humankind even your spouse and are living in sin.Answer: This is what I have to say. The law about marrying relatives came only in the time of Moses, therefore only in that time that it became a sin. God is the Maker of the Law and He is the Law itself. What He allows happens and what He forbids is a subject to judgment.Answer I'm sure that the God who created all things has had it all worked out long ago.As some have said here, we don't know how long God permitted that intra-familial marriages be conducted with His blessing, but they were, obviously, necessary in the early times.What also must be remembered is that either the human body itself was 'superior' in those days OR the earth was in a more conducive state for thrival and long life, or BOTH, because we are told that those men lived for around 900 years in those days! This was the state of things right up until Noah's time. So there was clearly something regarding the condition of earth itself at that point that is just not familiar to our current state and therefore to current science, and humans were more able to thrive. Supporting these "thrival" and "different state of the earth" themes further, the Bible says that there were "giants in the land in those days". It also says that God changed things in the sky, by giving Noah and man, generally, a permanent sign in the skies, in the form of a "rainbow", which, in so saying, would deem it necessary that it had not previously appeared in the sky.Current science cannot conceive of such things - certainly while it is limited to exploration of only 'the here and now'. Even anything found in the earth right now can only be interpreted from current understanding and present-day experience.
Is Familial polyposis cancerous?
Hello, I see you are asking "Is Familial polyposis cancerous" Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an inherited disorder characterized by cancer of the large intestine (colon ) and rectum. People with the classic type of familial adenomatous polyposis may begin to develop multiple noncancerous (benign) growths (polyps ) in the colon as early as their teenage years. To get more info visit the url: orthopedicshealth. com/symptoms/directory/a
What are the characteristics of familial polyposis?
Familial polyposis is a genetic condition characterized by the development of numerous polyps in the colon and rectum. These polyps have the potential to become cancerous if not removed. Symptoms may include bloody stool, abdominal pain, and changes in bowel habits. It is important for individuals with familial polyposis to undergo regular colonoscopies for monitoring and potentially preventive measures.
Who are the patients who receive ileoanal anastomosis?
Most patients--more than 85%--who undergo an ileoanal anastomosis are being treated for ulcerative colitis; familial adenomatous polyposis is the next most common condition requiring the surgery.
Is there a cancer susceptibility gene found for colon cancer?
Yes, there are several forms of familial colon cancer. Several mutations are associated with multiple colon polyps that can be diagnosed with a colonoscopy. This trait is called "Familial adenomatous polyposis". Other mutations are not associated with polyps; the trait is called "hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer".
What leads to permanent ileostomy?
The most common disorders requiring permanent ileostomy are Crohn's disease, familial polyposis, and ulcerative colitis
What prevention methods are there to avoid familial polyposis?
FAP cannot be prevented. Aggressive diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up monitoring are keys to successful management of the disease.
What are the population statistics for familial polyposis?
FAP is a rare disease. One in 8,000 people in the United States have FAP. However, it may be very common in affected families.
What are the causes of intestinal polyps?
There are several hereditary diseases that produce large numbers of intestinal polyps. These disorders include: Familial polyposis of the colon. Gardner's syndrome. Lynch's syndrome.
What is the prognosis for a patient with familial polyposis?
It has been estimated that a patient with known FAP has a relative risk of dying over three times greater than that of the average population, at a given age.
How is familial polyposis diagnosed?
The abnormal portion of the gene that causes FAP in most patients can be detected. A blood test can then be performed which identifies family members who have the same mutation. They will eventually develop the condition.
What treatment exists for patients with familial polyposis?
The only definitive treatment for FAP is surgical removal of the lower intestine. Since the goal is to prevent cancer, the operation is done as soon as adenomatous polyps are found on sigmoidoscopy.
What are the causes of familial polyposis?
FAP is caused by a portion of a gene that mutates or changes. The original cause of the mutation is unknown. Its exact role in FAP is not completely clear. Researchers theorize that the normal gene directs the manufacture of.
