The question asks about the "following". In such circumstances would it be too much to expect that you make sure that there is something that is following?
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The law of cosines can be written in one form as: c2 = a2 + b2 - 2abCos C. Without 3 of the 4 variables being given, there is no way to answer this question.
The law of cosines with a right angle is just the pythagorean theorem. The cosine of 90 degrees is 0. That is why the hypotenuse squared is equal to the sum of both of the legs squared
Yes
It follows from the cyclical symmetry of the cosine rule.
Even though the cosine of an angle was not a known concept at the time, Euclid (3rd century BC) in Egypt stated and proved a pair of propositions which were equivalent to the law of cosines. One proposition was applicable for obtuse angles and the other to acute angles.