To graph the inverse of a function without finding ordered pairs, you can reflect the original graph across the line ( y = x ). This is because the coordinates of the inverse function are the swapped coordinates of the original function. Thus, for every point ( (a, b) ) on the original graph, the point ( (b, a) ) will be on the graph of its inverse. Ensure that the original function is one-to-one for the inverse to be valid.
hyperbola
The graph of the function y(x) = 1/x is a hyperbola.
Arcsin
In general the function and it inverse are not the same and do not have the same graph. If we look at a special function f(x)=x, it is equal to its inverse and the graph is the same. Think of the inverse of a function as changing all the x's to y's and vice versa. Well, in the function f(x)=x, all the x's are already y's and vice versa so it is its own invese.
It is a relationship of direct proportion if and only if the graph is a straight line which passes through the origin. It is an inverse proportional relationship if the graph is a rectangular hyperbola. A typical example of an inverse proportions is the relationship between speed and the time taken for a journey.
hyperbola
hyperbola
The graph of the function y(x) = 1/x is a hyperbola.
Graph that equation. If the graph pass the horizontal line test, it is an inverse equation (because the graph of an inverse function is just a symmetry graph with respect to the line y= x of a graph of a one-to-one function). If it is given f(x) and g(x) as the inverse of f(x), check if g(f(x)) = x and f(g(x)) = x. If you show that g(f(x)) = x and f(g(x)) = x, then g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
A hyperbola.
The relationship between a logarithmic function and its graph is that the graph of a logarithmic function is the inverse of an exponential function. This means that the logarithmic function "undoes" the exponential function, and the graph of the logarithmic function reflects this inverse relationship.
Arcsin
use the graph of inverse functions,whcih checks the vallues of x and y
In general the function and it inverse are not the same and do not have the same graph. If we look at a special function f(x)=x, it is equal to its inverse and the graph is the same. Think of the inverse of a function as changing all the x's to y's and vice versa. Well, in the function f(x)=x, all the x's are already y's and vice versa so it is its own invese.
no you cant
you will get the inverse of the graph as it is supposed to be