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Simply because the Pythagorean Theorem is not true for any triangle that

doesn't have a right angle in it. If a triangle has a right angle in it, then it

satisfies the Theorem. If it hasn't, then it doesn't.

And if it satisfies the Theorem, then it has a right angle in it, and if it doesn't,

then it hasn't.

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โˆ™ 2011-11-08 00:48:58
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Q: What is the only type of triangle the Pythagorean Theorem can be used on without being given any other measurements besides the sides?
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