It is 93/256 = 0.363 approx.
In 34 or fewer tosses, the answer is 0. In infinitely many tosses, the answer is 1. The answer depends on the number of tosses and, since you have chosen not to share that critical bit of information, i is not possible to give a more useful answer.
If you draw 9 or fewer cards, the probability is 0. If you draw 10 or more card, the probability is 1.
The answer to this is 1 minus the probability that they will have 3 or fewer children. This would happen only if they had a boy as the first, second or third child. The probability they have a boy as first child is 0.5 The probability they have a boy as second is 0.25 The probability they have a boy as third is 0.125 Thus the total probability is 0.875 And so the probability they will have more than three children is 1-0.875 or 0.125
The probability that you draw any single black card would be: (number of black cards)/(total number of cards) and the probability to get 6 consecutive black cards would be: (probability of drawing black) x (probability of getting another black) and so on for 6 runs Therefore (26/52) x (25/51) x (24/50) x (23/49) x (22/48) x (21/47) since there is one fewer black cards and one fewer total cards per draw. (26/52) x (25/51) x (24/50) x (23/49) x (22/48) x (21/47) = .0113087788 = 1.13087788 %
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the required probability is 0.3126.
Assuming boys are equally as likely as girls, 125 boys would be expected. The probability of getting 140 or fewer boys is approximately 97.51%
The answer depends on what a winner is: 1 H?, a run of 3 H?If the winner is one H, the probability of getting exactly one winner - no more no fewer - is 5/32.
In 34 or fewer tosses, the answer is 0. In infinitely many tosses, the answer is 1. The answer depends on the number of tosses and, since you have chosen not to share that critical bit of information, i is not possible to give a more useful answer.
If you draw 9 or fewer cards, the probability is 0. If you draw 10 or more card, the probability is 1.
The answer to this is 1 minus the probability that they will have 3 or fewer children. This would happen only if they had a boy as the first, second or third child. The probability they have a boy as first child is 0.5 The probability they have a boy as second is 0.25 The probability they have a boy as third is 0.125 Thus the total probability is 0.875 And so the probability they will have more than three children is 1-0.875 or 0.125
Homework question? This is actually not a question of probability: if 95% of the parts are non-defective, then 0.95 * 500 = 475 parts are non-defective. So there is zero (0) probability that fewer than 472 parts are non-defective. The question is different when any part has a probability (chance) of 95% of being non-defective. This is a so called Binomial distribution. Google knows the answer.
The probability that you draw any single black card would be: (number of black cards)/(total number of cards) and the probability to get 6 consecutive black cards would be: (probability of drawing black) x (probability of getting another black) and so on for 6 runs Therefore (26/52) x (25/51) x (24/50) x (23/49) x (22/48) x (21/47) since there is one fewer black cards and one fewer total cards per draw. (26/52) x (25/51) x (24/50) x (23/49) x (22/48) x (21/47) = .0113087788 = 1.13087788 %
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the required probability is 0.3126.
A square, be definition, can have only four sides: no more and no fewer. So a square with eight sides is impossible.
To get more than 8 one needs to get 9 or 10 so there are 2/10 chances The probability to get less than 8 is the opposite probability to the one before so it's 1-2/10 = 8/10 = 4/5 = 0.8
The probability is extremely close to 0. The person who is 85 now would be 121 or more in 2050. Of the 7 billion people in the world today, a lot fewer than 700000 will live to 121. And that is a probability of less than 0.0001.
As there are millions of people who have no access to golf and millions more who are not physically capable of playing golf (through age, infirmity, parplegia, quadrapegia) etc. it is certain that the probability that 128 (or less) people have never played, or will ever play, golf - so a probability of 1.