The question cannot be answered properly because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. Furthermore, it is often wrongly assumed that the probability of a boy is 50%. That is simply not true: the latest information shows that the probability of a boy is 52%.
However, if you choose to ignore reality then the solution, based on the Binomial(9, 1/2) distribution, is that the probability is 0.1641, approximately.
Assuming that having boys and girls are equally likely, then the probability is 1/8. * * * * * You also need to assume that the children's genders are independent. They are NOT and depend on the parents' ages and genes.
1/32
It depends on the context. In a girls' school, it is pretty close to 1 whereas in a boys' school it will be 0.
1/35
well it Will be even
50/50
Assuming that having boys and girls are equally likely, then the probability is 1/8. * * * * * You also need to assume that the children's genders are independent. They are NOT and depend on the parents' ages and genes.
50%
1/32
(assuming that the probability of having a girl or a boy is 50/50) Looking from beforehand, the probability of having three boys then a girl is the probability of each of these events happening multiplied together. That is 50% x 50% x 50% x 50% or 0.54 This would mean that the chance of having a girl after three boys is 0.0625. If you've already had the three boys though, it is a different story. The point is that previous experiences do not affect future ones; probability has no memory. Thus the probability of having a girl next is 50%, regardless of if you've had boys or girls in the past. To think otherwise is known as the gambler's fallacy, where a gambler says "black has come up 4 times in a row, it must be red next" even though the chance of red is always 50%
It depends on the context. In a girls' school, it is pretty close to 1 whereas in a boys' school it will be 0.
1/35
This question is extremely poorly phrased. The probability of three boys [sitting] in a row at an all boys school is 1. At an all girls school it is 0 and is otherwise somewhere in between. If the question is about birth order, do you take account of the fact that nearly half the families have two or fewer children? So that in half the cases the probability is 0. Finally, children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the probability of giving birth to three boys in a row is 0.523 = 0.1381
well it Will be even
0.48
In a family with four children, the probability of having four boys is 1 in 16.
The ratio of girls to total students is 15:25, or 3:5. Three out of five students are girls so there would be a 60% probability that a girl would be chosen; a 2 out of 5 chance, or 40% probability that a boy would be chosen.