Nothing - as there is no number that goes into both 9 and 40. Only 1 or 3 goes into 9, and 40 is not divisible by 3 (either 39 or 42 are nearest). So it stays at 9 / 40
No, not evenly. It goes into 42, 4 times, with a remainder of 6 left over. So nine goes into 42, 4-2/3 times.
1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21, 42
42 goes into 398 9.48 times or 9 with remainder 20.
1 and 2 both do.
The number 1 goes into both 17 and 42. In this instance, one goes into each number exact the same number of times as the original number like 17 or 42.
The HCF of the given four numbers is 1
Find the highest factor of the smallest of the numbers and divide it into the highest number, if it goes in exactly that's your answer?
An infinite number of of multiples of 42 can be divided by 42.
378 ÷ 42 = 9
Nothing - as there is no number that goes into both 9 and 40. Only 1 or 3 goes into 9, and 40 is not divisible by 3 (either 39 or 42 are nearest). So it stays at 9 / 40
42/9 = 4 and 2/3
6
It is: 4.2
The difference between a number and its reverse must be divisible by 9. 42 is NOT divisible by 9. There is, therefore, no such number.
8 times 6
1, 3.