Your question is rather curious; it's hard to tell what you're really asking. But I'm going to take a shot. If two units of measurement measure the same thing -- distance, area, volume, weight, density, current, velocity, power, work, energy, whatever! -- then there will be a conversion factor that converts one unit to the other. The conversion factor is not just a number; it will have units, too. That concept is best illustrated by example. Let's take two common and familiar units of distance, the inch and the foot. Let's say the distance from point A to point B is 10 feet, but we wish to express that distance in inches. If we know that there are 12 inches per foot, then we can say the conversion factor for converting feet to inches is 12 in/ft. Hence, we multiply 10 ft by 12 in/ft to get 120 in. Note how feet (ft) -- one in the numerator (10 ft) and one in the denominator (12 in/ft) -- cancel each other out, which leaves only inches.
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two units of measurements are MKS and CGS systems
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Yes they must be in the same units of measurements.
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Ration does not have units. You have to convert one of them to the same units and then work it out. For example: what is the ratio of 4m to 200cm ? This is the same as: 4m to 2m - so the answer is 2 to 1. (400cm to 200cm gives the same answer.)
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Wiki Answers can not be trusted for example: Answer: 2+2=5
two units of measurements are MKS and CGS systems
The difference is the tranguillary measurements of the two said units
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There is no real reason for two equivalent measurements to be rationed! The ratio of two equivalent measurements will depend on the units used. The ratio between a length in feet and the equivalent length in inches, for example, is 12:1.
For two measurements to be a conversion factor, they must represent the same quantity but in different units. The ratio should equal 1 and can be written as a fraction where the units cancel out, allowing you to convert from one unit to another.
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