it is ok if there is less than 2 mode if you have three just leave it there is no mode
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If you have more than one mode then you have more than one mode! There is nothing strange about that. It is one of the weaknesses of the ode as a statistical measure.
Sets of numbers can have more than one mode.
Because more than two numbers can occur in the data most often
No. Some distributions and some sets of observations can have more than one modes. In such cases there is no unique mode.
The mode is the most common answers in a data set. Sometimes there can be more than one mode so if there is a single mode it is unique. It there are two it is bimodal.