If you have more than one mode then you have more than one mode! There is nothing strange about that. It is one of the weaknesses of the ode as a statistical measure.
Sets of numbers can have more than one mode.
it is ok if there is less than 2 mode if you have three just leave it there is no mode
No. Some distributions and some sets of observations can have more than one modes. In such cases there is no unique mode.
The mode is the most common answers in a data set. Sometimes there can be more than one mode so if there is a single mode it is unique. It there are two it is bimodal.
The mode can be more than one number
There can be more than one mode.
In any given set, the mode is the number that appears most often. If no number appears more frequently than any other, there is no mode. It is also possible to have more than one mode. Ex. (10, 17, 20, 45, 68) This set has no mode.
8, 9 and 1. You can have more than one mode.
no
Mode is the most common number in a set of data If there are more than one most common number write them all
I think you might be asking about the mode. In any given set, the mode is the number that appears most often. If no number appears more frequently than any other, there is no mode. It is also possible to have more than one mode. Ex. (10, 17, 20, 45, 68) This set has no mode. The mood is how you feel about math.
Unfortunately, you can not play the campaign mode with more than two people on one console.
Sleep mode uses less electricity than running mode.
yes
There is no mode, because no number appears more than any other.
The mode is defined as the term which is repeated for the highest number of times in an array or a sequence. If many terms are repeated for a similar number of times and highest, that array has more than one value for mode.