This depends on the circle you're talking about. A theoretical circle and square most certainly could have the same area. If the circle's radius is 1, then the square's length and width would be √π. The problem here is actually in creating such a measurement in a finite number of steps. Because pi is a transcendental number, that is not possible.
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It depends on the diameter of the circle and the width of the square, if they are the same then the answer is no. If you draw yourself a square then inscribe a circle with a radius of half the length of a side of the square, the circle will fit inside the square but the corners of the square will be outside the circle. Thus by inspection the area of the square is larger than the area of the circle.
The formula for the area of a circle is pi x radius2. The radius is half the diameter, and the diameter of an inscribed circle is the same as the length of a side of the square.The formula for the area of a circle is pi x radius2. The radius is half the diameter, and the diameter of an inscribed circle is the same as the length of a side of the square.The formula for the area of a circle is pi x radius2. The radius is half the diameter, and the diameter of an inscribed circle is the same as the length of a side of the square.The formula for the area of a circle is pi x radius2. The radius is half the diameter, and the diameter of an inscribed circle is the same as the length of a side of the square.
Assuming the circle is tangent to the sides of the square, then the edges of the circle meet the square at the midpoint on each of the four sides. So the diameter of the circle is the same as the length of a side of the square. So all you need to do is find the length from the total area by taking the square root of the area (since A = s2), which gives you the diameter, then halve it to get the radius.
There is no such thing as a "square circle". If you mean "8 square feet", that is already the area.
Area of a square = side squared Area of a circle = pi times radius squared