answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

Any number to the power of 1 is itself, so if we divide a^1 by a^1, we should get a^(1-1) = a^0, and we end up with 1. So any number to the power of 0 is 1 -except- 0. Sometimes people will treat 0^0 as if it were a certain value for convenience, but you should read this link.

See below for related link

User Avatar

Wiki User

βˆ™ 13y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why is 5 to the power of 0 equal to 1?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp