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The proof is by contradiction: assume there is a finite number of prime numbers and get a contradiction by requiring a prime that is not one of the finite number of primes.

Suppose there are only a finite number of prime numbers.

Then there are n of them.; and

they can all be listed as: p1, p2, ..., pn in order with there being no possible primes between p(r) and p(r+1) for all 0 < r < n.

Consider the number m = p1 × p2 × ... × pn + 1

It is not divisible by any prime p1, p2, ..., pn as there is a remainder of 1.

Thus either m is a Prime number itself or there is some other prime p (greater than pn) which divides into m.

Thus there is a prime which is not in the list p1, p2, ..., pn.

But the list p1, p2, ..., pn is supposed to contain all the prime numbers.

Thus the assumption that there is a finite number of primes is false;

ie there are an infinite number of primes.

QED.

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