Yes.
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The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal; in this case, 22. The standard deviation has no bearing on this question.
If a random variable X has a Normal distribution with mean m and standard deviation s, then z = (X - m)/s has a Standard Normal distribution. That is, Z has a Normal distribution with mean 0 and standard deviation 1. Probabilities for a general Normal distribution are extremely difficult to obtain but values for the Standard Normal have been calculated numerically and are widely tabulated. The z-transformation is, therefore, used to evaluate probabilities for Normally distributed random variables.
use this link http://www.ltcconline.net/greenl/Courses/201/probdist/zScore.htm Say you start with 1000 observations from a standard normal distribution. Then the mean is 0 and the standard deviation is 1, ignoring sample error. If you multiply every observation by Beta and add Alpha, then the new results will have a mean of Alpha and a standard deviation of Beta. Or, do the reverse. Start with a normal distribution with mean Alpha and standard deviation Beta. Subtract Alpha from all observations and divide by Beta and you wind up with the standard normal distribution.
The answer will depend on the underlying distribution for the variable. You may not simply assume that the distribution is normal.
The normal distribution can have any real number as mean and any positive number as variance. The mean of the standard normal distribution is 0 and its variance is 1.