yes; e.g. 1/6 / 1/3 = 1/2
Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).
The expression "the quotient of two and a number xxx" can be represented as 2 / xxx. Nine less than this quotient would be 2 / xxx - 9.
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.
There can be no answer because it is not necessarily true. Suppose f1 and f2 are two fractions.Suppose f1 = 1/2, which is less than 1;suppose f2 = -1/4, which is also less than 1.Then f1/f2 = -2 which is, in fact, smaller than either fraction. Go figure!
That's only true if the fractions are "proper" fractions ... with numerator smaller than denominator. The reason is: If you take (a piece less than the whole thing) out of (a piece less than the whole thing), you wind up with a piece smaller than either of the original pieces.
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
When both fractions are less than 1, their values are represented by numbers between 0 and 1. Dividing one fraction by another (where both are less than 1) effectively involves multiplying by the reciprocal of the denominator, which is greater than 1. This means the quotient will yield a result that is larger than either of the original fractions. Thus, the quotient of two fractions, both less than 1, will always be greater than either fraction.
Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
It is greater as for example 3/4 divided by 1/4 is equal to 3
To determine if the quotient of two fractions is greater than 1, compare the two fractions directly. If the numerator (the first fraction) is greater than the denominator (the second fraction), the quotient will be greater than 1. Alternatively, you can convert the division of fractions into multiplication by flipping the second fraction and multiplying; if the result is greater than 1, the original quotient is also greater than 1.
Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
The quotient of the two fractions.
The expression "the quotient of two and a number xxx" can be represented as 2 / xxx. Nine less than this quotient would be 2 / xxx - 9.
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.
The statement is simply not true.Consider 2/9 and 2/3, both are fractions which are less than 1.Their quotient is (2/9) / (2/3) = (2/9)*(3/2) = 3/9 = 1/3The last time I checked, 1/3 was not greater than 2/3. I have no idea where you are getting your rubbish assertions from.
No.