Infinitely many. Take any whole number n. Then (4*n)/(5*n) is an equivalent fraction.
There are infinitely many equivalent fractions to any given fraction.
No. There are infinitely many equivalent fractions for any given fraction.
There are an infinite number of proper fractions equal to any other fraction - as long as you multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number, the fractions will be equivalent.
To find out how many fifths are in sixteen twentieths, you need to first simplify both fractions. Sixteen twentieths simplifies to four fifths by dividing both the numerator and denominator by four. Therefore, sixteen twentieths is equivalent to four fifths.
There are infinitely many equivalent fractions. Multiply the numerator (top) and the denominator (bottom) of the fraction by any non-zero number. You will have an equivalent fraction.
It has infinitely many equivalent fractions. Multiply both the numerator (top) and the denominator (bottom) of the fraction by any non-zero integer and you will have an equivalent fraction.
every fifts
Infinitely many. Take any whole number n. Then (4*n)/(5*n) is an equivalent fraction.
There are infinite fractions.
There are infinitely many equivalent fractions to any given fraction.
200/340 is one of infinitely many equivalent fractions.
No. There are infinitely many equivalent fractions for any given fraction.
"The two" equivalent fractions is incorrect - there are infinitely many equivalent fractions, not just two.
There are infinite equivalent fractions, because 6/10 can be equal to 6,000/10,000. The amount of equivalent fractions with smaller numerals is 1; 3/5
An infinite number.
an infinite number