The answer is 3.
Proof:
According to Pythagoras, for any right-angled triangle (one that has one angle equal to 90 degrees), the square of the longest side equals the sum the squares of the two shorter sides.
So, if the sides of the equilateral triangle are of length s, a normal from any apex will divide the opposite side into equal lengths that are each equal to a half of s (= s x 0.5)
The normal is part of a right-angled triangle which has its longest side of length s, the normal as its next-shorter side and its shortest side is of length (s x 0.5)
We have been told that the square of the normal = 0.75 (A)
We can calculate the square of the length of a half side as:
(s x 0.5) x (s x 0.5) = s^2 x 0.25 (s squared times a quarter) (B)
So the sum of these squares (A) + (B) = s^2 x 0.25 + 0.75
According to Pythagoras, (A) + (B) = the square of the longest side s = s^2
So s^2 = [(s^2 x 0.25) + 0.75]
Using algebra, we can reduce this to: [s^2 - (s^2 x 0.25)] = 0.75
So (s^2 x 0.75) = 0.75 so s^2 = 1 so s =1
So the answer to the question " what is the sum of its three sides" is 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 ---- ; Above Correct Answer and Proof by Martinel. : Joined: Thu Feb 07, 2008 12:00 am
He created a formula and mathematically proved his theory.
Johannes Kepler
Yes, he must have proved his own Theorem otherwise it would not have been adopted by mathematicians across the globe. I'm sure you could test out the theorem: check whether c2 really does equal b2 + a2 in a manual measurement of a triangle; though this is less accurate and not as precise as the Theorem.
Triangles can only be congruent if you can prove that they have one of these three properties: 1. All the sides are the same lengths as the sides on the other triangle (e.g. both have sides of 3, 4 and 5 cm) 2. Two of the sides, and the angle between them are the same in both triangles 3. Two of the angles and the corresponding side to them (the side that is attached to both corners where the angles are measured) are the same in both triangles. If any of the above can be proved to be true then the triangles are congruent. However, if any one of the conditions above are proved to be false - for example if one triangle has two sides the same, but one has the angle between them of 40 degress and the other at 41 degrees, (breaking rule 2) then the triangles are not congruent.
Ferdinand von Lindmann
if a triangle is acute, then the triangle is equilateral
Euclid and Pythagoras.
smart phone proved us 3e faculty. but normal phone not proved this faculty.
fact
In any triangle that is not equilateral, the Euler line is the straight line passing through the orthocentre, circumcentre and centroid. In an equilateral triangle these three points are coincident and so do not define a line.Orthocentre = point of intersection of altitudes.Circumcentre = point of intersection of perpendicular bisector of the sides.Centroid = point of intersection of medians.Euler proved the collinearity of the above three. However, there are several other important points that also lie on these lines. Amongst them,Nine-point Centre = centre of the circle that passes through the bottoms of the altitudes, midpoints of the sides and the points half-way between the orthocentre and the vertices.
Yes I can't explain it through words easily, but I can help you visualize it. A triangle has to be equilangular and equilateral simultaneously. It can't have one property over the other, the reason for this is: In any way, shape, or form draw a square with side lengths of 2 units. Make this precise. Now, draw a rombus, with the exact same side lengths of the square. If you compare the two, all you basically did, was move the sides around/change the angle measures. With a triangle, you can't shift around the sides AT ALL (if you want, try making two equilateral triangles of different size. Can you change the angles without changing the side lengths?). Thus, triangles have to be equilateral AND equilangular. If you compare the two four sided shapes, you have now just proved that every polygon in existence with four or more sides can be equilateral, without being equilangular. However, the opossite does not work Try the above steps with ANY SHAPE that has more than four sides of the same length.
We know that R = a/2sinA area of triangle = 1/2 bc sinA sin A = 2(area of triangle)/bc R = (a/2)*2(area of triangle)/bc R = abc/4*(area of triangle)
Chndrakant Sir
Yes- this can be proved from the normal distribution function.
There is a legend that whoever flies in the zone of the Bermuda Triangle disappears forever. This has happened to people who flew in this area, but it hasn't been proved if it's just a coincidence.
Pythagoras was an ancient Greek mathematician who proved that the hypotenuse of a right angle triangle when squared is equal to the sum of its squared sides.
A theorem is proven. An example is The "Pythagoras Theorem" that proved that for a right angled triangle a2 + b2 = c2