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Yes- this can be proved from the normal distribution function.

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15y ago

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Related Questions

Does mode equal median in a normal distribution?

Yes, mode equals median in a normal distribution.


Does mode equals the median normal distribution?

Yes it is. The normal distribution is symmetrical around the mode. Therefore the median has to be the same :)


In a normal distribution you will always know that?

The mean is the same as the mode and median.


Is the mean always equal to the median for a normal distribution?

Yes, in a normal distribution, the mean is always equal to the median. This is because the normal distribution is symmetric around its mean, meaning that the values are evenly distributed on both sides. As a result, the central tendency measured by both the mean and the median coincides at the same point.


Do the mean median and mode of a collection of numbers always have to be different?

No, in a normal distribution they are the same.


What is the distribution when the mean median and mode are the same?

The normal distribution.


If the mean is 40 in a normal distribution what is the median?

In a normal distribution, the mean, median, and mode are all equal. Therefore, if the mean is 40, the median is also 40. This property holds true for any normal distribution regardless of its specific values.


What is the median of a normal distribution to outlier as lunar perigee is to lunar?

The median of a normal distribution to outlier as lunar perigee is to lunar is an elliptical orbit.


How does the median affect the graph of a normal distribution?

A normal distribution is symmetrical; the mean, median and mode are all the same, on the line of symmetry (middle) of the graph.


The mean of a symmetrical distribution is 40What is its median?

for symmetrical distributions your mean equals the median. that is one of the properties of the symmetrical distribution.


Is the mode and median equal in a normal distribution?

Yes.


Are the mean and median equal in a normal distribution?

Yes.