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Is it true or false that the limit of a function f x at x equals 2 is always the value of the function at x equals 2 that is f 2?
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
False.
It is true for a function that is continuous at x=2, but it is not generally true for all functions. For a counterexample, consider the function f(x), such that:
f(x)=x for x not equal to 2
f(x)=0 for x=2
The limit of this function as x approaches 2 is 2 (since we can make f(x) as close to 2 as we want as x gets closer to 2), but f(2) does not equal the limit of f(x) as x approaches 2.
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
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