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No.
Accurate relates to how close the actual measurement the instrument measures.
Precise relates to how much detail the instrument gives when measuring.
They are independent to each other:
An measurement can be precise and accurate (eg the value of π is 3.141592654)
An measurement can be precise and inaccurate (eg the value of π is 1.733677432)
An measurement can be less precise and accurate (eg the value of π is 3.14)
An measurement can be less precise and inaccurate (eg the value of π is 1.73).
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Which is less precise between 2.8 mm or 3.79 mm?
The first one.
A clock that is set five minutes fast is less precise than an identical clock that keeps correct time.?
No. Consider shooting at a target. If you group all your shots in a very small area in the outermost part of the target you are more precise than if you had grouped them more loosely within the bull's eye and inner circle. You would be less accurate, though. Precision is not the same as accuracy.
Which trigonometric functions always have values less than 1?
The sine and the cosine are always less than one.
What is 151cm in feet and inches?
4 feet and 11" inches and 5/16 of an inch to be more or less precise
Did Pythagoras prove his own Theorem?
Yes, he must have proved his own Theorem otherwise it would not have been adopted by mathematicians across the globe. I'm sure you could test out the theorem: check whether c2 really does equal b2 + a2 in a manual measurement of a triangle; though this is less accurate and not as precise as the Theorem.
