YES
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here is the proof: http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/ProductOfAFiniteNumberOfCountableSetsIsCountable.html
CHECK THIS OUT http://www.mathstat.dal.ca/~hill/2112/assn7sol.pdf
No, the set of all irrational numbers is not countable. Countable sets are those that can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ...). The set of irrational numbers is uncountable because it has a higher cardinality than the set of natural numbers. This was proven by Georg Cantor using his diagonalization argument.
The cardinality of finite sets are the number of elements included in them however, union of infinite sets can be different as it includes the matching of two different sets one by one and finding a solution by matching the same amount of elements in those sets.
The union of two sets.The union of two sets.The union of two sets.The union of two sets.