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As a generalization, definitely not! However, when and only when x = 2, x2 = 2x.

"It depends on whether the 2x is a quantity being squared or not.

x² + 2x² = 3x²

That's because you have 1 x² + 2 x² = 3 x²

(one of something plus two of something equals three of something).

However, if you intended for the whole quantity 2x to be squared you would write:

x² + (2x)² = 5 x²

x² + 4x² = 5x²

In Pythagorean terms, if the ratio of the legs were x and 2x, then you'd take the square root of 5x² and get:

√5 * x

So a right triangle with legs in the ratio of 1x to 2x will have a hypotenuse equal to (√5)x"

Dear Norvellwisdom,

I believe that this is your opinion not a fact. I have wrote the correct answer.

Thanks,

Ms.Natalie

Dear Ms. Natalie,

Your have written an answer to a different question: "Is x squared equal to 2x squared. That is not the question as it was stated. According to standard algebraic notation, "2x" equals 2 X x, not either "2x2" or (2x)2.

Thanks, Norvell Wisdom

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14y ago
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14y ago
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Q: Is x squared equal to 2x?
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