answersLogoWhite

0

In any case, being the product of two rational numbers, it will also be rational.

It can either be another mixed number, or it may happen to be an integer.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

Is it sometimes true when the product of Twp rational numbers are rational?

No, it is always true


Is it sometimes true when the product of Two rational numbers are rational?

No, it is always true.


Is the LCM of two numbers always sometimes or never true the product of the two numbers?

Sometimes true.


Is it true that two numbers is the product of the two numbers?

Not always because as for example 2*19 = 38


What statement about multiplying fractions and mixed numbers is not true?

A common misconception is that multiplying fractions always results in a smaller number. While it is true that multiplying two proper fractions (less than one) results in a smaller fraction, multiplying a fraction by a mixed number can yield a larger product if the mixed number is greater than one. Therefore, the statement "Multiplying fractions always results in a smaller number" is not true.


Is it true the product of mixed numbers between 4 and 5 and a fraction between 0 and 1 always less than 4?

No not always true. Say you have a mixed number of 4 and 9/10 tines a fraction 9/10 you have 49/10 x 9/10 = 441/100 = 4.41 which is greater than 4


Is it true that The product of a mixed number between 4 and 5 and a fraction between 0 and 1 is always less than 4?

No, it is not true.


Is it always true that if you divide the product of two numbers by the Greatest common factor you find the Least common multiple?

Yes, as long as the numbers are positive.


Is it true that the product of two positive real numbers is always a positive real number?

Yes.


Is it true that the product of any two prime numbers are always odd?

Not always because as for example 2*19 = 38


The product of a mixed number between four and five and a fraction between 0 and 1 is always less than 4 True or false?

False.


Why the second partial product is always greater than the first partial product when you multiply two numbers?

The assertion in the question is simply not true.