stupid
If you mean prime number, it is a number which can only be divided by 1 and itself. For example: 2 because only 1 and 2 are the factors of 2 5 because only 1 and 5 are the factors of 5
Do you mean, what is it evenly divisible by? You can answer questions like these by finding the factors of the number and multiplying different factors: 215 ends in 5, so we know 5 is one if its factors. Divide by 5: we're left with 43. 43 is a prime number, it can't be factored any more. 215 is only divisible by 5 and 43. As a better example of how this technique works, consider 100. 100's factors are 5, 5, 2, and 2. By multiplying together different factors, we can discover that 100 is not only divisible directly by its factors 5 and 2, but also by 5*5, 2*2, 5*2, 5*5*2 and 2*2*5.
3 5/8 - 2 1/4 = 1 3/8
Answer #1: no==================Answer #2:If you honestly don't know, then here's a little tip that will blow your mind:-- If a number has 5 as one of its factors, then the number ends with a 5 or a zero.-- If a number ends with a 5 or a zero, then 5 is one of its factors.-- If a number doesn't end with a 5 or a zero, then 5 is not one of its factors.
15, 30,45, 60, 75, 90, 105,......................... any number that is a multiple of 15
sixteen-fifths as a mixed number is 3and 1/5
2 and 5 are factors of 10
The prime factors are: 2 x 2 x 5
As a product of its oprime factors: 2*5*7 = 70
Well, honey, if the ones digit of a number is 0, then that number must have 2 and 5 as factors. Why? Because any number ending in 0 is a multiple of 10, which is made up of 2 and 5. So, to answer your question, the number must have both 2 and 5 as factors.
2
Sorry. There are no numbers between 1 and 2 that have 5 factors.
30 is the first number that has factors of 2, 3, and 5.
It doesn't; they have the same number of factors.
5 is a prime number so therefore it has only 2 factors which are itself and one
stupid