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That number is zero. It has no inverse because there is no number that you can multiply by zero to get one; to put this another way; The equation 0x= 1 has no solution, bacause 0x = 0 for all real numbers x.

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Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?

The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.


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No, it is not true.


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Is the multiplicative inverse of -54 ... 54?

No, the multiplicative inverse of any number is one divide by that number. Stated differently, the product (-54) x (its multiplicative inverse) should be 1. (-54) x (54) is NOT equal to 1.The correct multiplicative inverse is -1/54.No, the multiplicative inverse of any number is one divide by that number. Stated differently, the product (-54) x (its multiplicative inverse) should be 1. (-54) x (54) is NOT equal to 1.The correct multiplicative inverse is -1/54.No, the multiplicative inverse of any number is one divide by that number. Stated differently, the product (-54) x (its multiplicative inverse) should be 1. (-54) x (54) is NOT equal to 1.The correct multiplicative inverse is -1/54.No, the multiplicative inverse of any number is one divide by that number. Stated differently, the product (-54) x (its multiplicative inverse) should be 1. (-54) x (54) is NOT equal to 1.The correct multiplicative inverse is -1/54.


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