Q: What an multiplicative inverse property and real number?

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The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.

Suppose p and q are inverses of a number x. where x is non-zero. Then, by definition, xp = 1 = xq therefore xp - xq = 0 and, by the distributive property of multiplication over subtraction, x*(p - q) = 0 Then, since x is non-zero, (p - q) = 0. That is, p = q. [If x = 0 then it does not have a multiplicative inverse.]

Because zero has no multiplicative inverse (no real number multiplied by 0 produces 1).

Here is one example of a practical use of multiplicative inverses. If you want to convert from feet to meters, you multiply by 0.3048. If you want to convert the other way round, you either DIVIDE by the same number, or you MULTIPLY by its multiplicative inverse. The same applies to many similar conversions.

They have no real relations ofther than being mathmatical properties The additive identity states that any number + 0 is still that number; a+0 = a The additive inverse property states that any number added to its inverse/opposite is zero; a + -a = 0

Related questions

The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.

No, it is not true.

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A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.

All real numbers, except 0, have a multiplicative inverse. For any real x, (x not = 0), there exists a real number y such that x*y = 1. This y is denoted by 1/x.

All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.

The same as for a real number: 1 divided by the number.For example, the multiplicative inverse (or reciprocal) of 2i is 1 / 2i = -(1/2)i.

Suppose p and q are inverses of a number x. where x is non-zero. Then, by definition, xp = 1 = xq therefore xp - xq = 0 and, by the distributive property of multiplication over subtraction, x*(p - q) = 0 Then, since x is non-zero, (p - q) = 0. That is, p = q. [If x = 0 then it does not have a multiplicative inverse.]

Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.

The multiplicative inverse of a non-zero element, x, in a set, is an element, y, from the set such that x*y = y*x equals the multiplicative identity. The latter is usually denoted by 1 or I and the inverse of x is usually denoted by x-1 or 1/x. y need not be different from x. For example, the multiplicative inverse of 1 is 1, that of -1 is -1.The additive inverse of an element, p, in a set, is an element, q, from the set such that p+q = q+p equals the additive identity. The latter is usually denoted by 0 and the additive inverse of p is denoted by -p.

That number is zero. It has no inverse because there is no number that you can multiply by zero to get one; to put this another way; The equation 0x= 1 has no solution, bacause 0x = 0 for all real numbers x.

Because zero has no multiplicative inverse (no real number multiplied by 0 produces 1).