No. For example, the solution to x ≤ 4 and x ≥ 4 is x = 4.
x>1
8(x+5) is equivalent to 8x+40
I assume you have inequalities that involve variables. If you replace the variable by some number, you will get an inequality that is either true or false. A value for the variable that results in a true statement is said to "satisfy" the inequality. For example, in: x + 3 > 10 If you replace x by 8, you get a true statement, since 11 is greater than 10; if you replace x by 7, you get a false statement, since 10 is not greater than 10. In this case, there are two inequalities; you have to find all numbers that satisfy both inequalities; in other words, that convert both inequalities into true statements.
x-2\x+4=x+1\x+10
Two inequalities are equivalent if their solution sets are the same. For example, the inequalities 2x > 6 and 3x > 9 are both equivalent to x > 3.
The definition of equivalent inequalities: inequalities that have the same set of solutions
3 X 8
(x-8)(x+8)
8^2x (8Ă8)^x 8^xĂ8^x
The system of inequalities y
Some are, some aren't.
8â´ = 8x8x8x8 = 4096
No. For example, the solution to x ≤ 4 and x ≥ 4 is x = 4.
Unfortunately, limitations of the browser used by Answers.com means that we cannot see most symbols. And so, there are no inequalities to be seen - equivalent or not. It is therefore impossible to give a proper answer to your question. Please resubmit your question spelling out the symbols as "plus", "minus", "equals" etc. And using ^ to indicate powers (eg x-squared = x^2).
Graph the following Inequalities: x > 3
It could be 43.