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8(x+5) is equivalent to 8x+40
No. For example, the solution to x ≤ 4 and x ≥ 4 is x = 4.
The expression ( 2(x + 4) ) can be simplified by distributing the 2. This results in ( 2x + 8 ). Thus, ( 2(x + 4) ) is equivalent to ( 2x + 8 ).
x>1
It is any number of the form (5*x)/(8*x) where x is a non-zero integer.
Two inequalities are equivalent if their solution sets are the same. For example, the inequalities 2x > 6 and 3x > 9 are both equivalent to x > 3.
The definition of equivalent inequalities: inequalities that have the same set of solutions
3 X 8
(x-8)(x+8)
8^2x (8×8)^x 8^x×8^x
8⁴ = 8x8x8x8 = 4096
The system of inequalities y
It could be 43.
It is: 7*(8*15) = 840
8(x+5) is equivalent to 8x+40
Some are, some aren't.
Unfortunately, limitations of the browser used by Answers.com means that we cannot see most symbols. And so, there are no inequalities to be seen - equivalent or not. It is therefore impossible to give a proper answer to your question. Please resubmit your question spelling out the symbols as "plus", "minus", "equals" etc. And using ^ to indicate powers (eg x-squared = x^2).