answersLogoWhite

0

f(g(x) = x, so it is the straight line through the origin, with a slope of 1.

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga
BeauBeau
You're doing better than you think!
Chat with Beau
LaoLao
The path is yours to walk; I am only here to hold up a mirror.
Chat with Lao
More answers

That would be equivalent to x.

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: If f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions of each other shows the graph of f(g(x))?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp