answersLogoWhite

0

Yes--these two terms mean essentially the same thing. There might be variation among practicing statisticians and researchers (perhaps geographically, with those in the U.S. preferring the phrase "inferential" and those in other countries perhaps more likely to use "inductive"). The goal of inferential statistics is to make a broader statement about a large group from a small subset of that group--and the phrase "inductive reasoning" refers to making a broader generalization (that is, an inference) from a series of observations. Thus, these two phrases refer to the same thing.

User Avatar

Wiki User

11y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

EzraEzra
Faith is not about having all the answers, but learning to ask the right questions.
Chat with Ezra
JordanJordan
Looking for a career mentor? I've seen my fair share of shake-ups.
Chat with Jordan
TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Does inductive statistics and inferential statistics mean same?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp