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No, a distribution can have infinitely many moments: the first is the mean, the second variance. Then there are skewness (3), kurtosis (4), hyperskewness (5), hyperflatness (6) and so on.

If mk represents the kth moment, then

mk = E[(X - m1)k] where E is the expected value.


It is, therefore, perfectly possible for m1 and m2 to be the same but for the distribution to differ at the higher moments.

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