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Yes, they are. A uniform distribution is one in which the probability of each outcome is the same and, as a result, the mean and median are the same. A uniform distribution should not be confused with a set of random variables, all with the same distributions - much less the same values!

For example, the median of a Poisson distribution is not the same as its mean. So if you have a number of random variables (RVs), each with the same Poisson distribution, their mean and median will be different. This is true of any set of RVs whose distributions are asymmetric.


And it is very easy to see that the mode need not be the same. The outcome of a single roll of a regular die is the uniform distribution over the numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. The mean and median are 3.5 but the mode cannot be 3.5 since that is not a value that can ever be observed.

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9y ago
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9y ago

Yes, since all the values of the variable are the same. That value is also the mode.

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Q: In an uniform distribution is the mean and median the same?
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Related questions

If the mean of a symmetric distribution is 130 which of these values could be the median of the distribution?

If it is a symmetric distribution, the median must be 130.


When you calculate mean is the answer same when the same data is calculated by median?

No. The mean and median are not necessarily the same. They will be the same if the distribution is symmetric but the converse is not necessarily true. That is to say, a distribution does not have to be symmetric for the mean and median to be the same. For example, the mean and median of {1, 1, 5, 6, 12} are both 5 but the distribution is NOT symmetric.


What is the distribution when the mean median and mode are the same?

The normal distribution.


What is the shape of a distribution when the mean and the median are about the same value?

That would provide some evidence that the distribution is symmetric about the mean (or median).


What is the shape of a distribution when the mean and the median are the same value?

That would provide some evidence that the distribution is symmetric about the mean (or median).


Is the 50th percentile of a distribution the same as the distribution mean?

Mean = average and median = the middle value in an array of all values received. So to answer your question the 50th percentile of a distribution is the same as median.


How are the mode and median the same?

Mean, median, and mode are all equal in a normal distribution.


Are the mean median and the mode the same in a unimodal symmetrical distribution?

No they are not the same in a unimodal symmetrical distribution and they will never be


In which situations mean and median are not same?

If there is any skewness in the distribution.


Are the mean mode median are same in normal distribution?

Yes.


Can mean and median have same values?

Yes, they can.Yes, they can. In a symmetric distribution they will be the same.


In a perfectly symmetrical unimodal distribution is the mode and the median the same as the mean?

No, it is in general not true - for example for uniform distribution on [0,1] every number in the interval is a mode, but the mean is 1/2. The correct answer would be that a symmetric unimodal distribution has one mode equal to the mean (but may have modes elsewhere).