answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

The modes of a probability density function might be defined as the (countable) set of points in the domain of the function for which the function achieves local maxima. Since the probability density function for the uniform distribution is constant by definition it has no local maxima, hence no modes. Hence, it cannot be bimodal.

User Avatar

Wiki User

11y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Is uniform distribution bimodal
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Continue Learning about Statistics

What if there a two modal class?

The distribution is bimodal. That is all there is to it.


Is considerably skewed distribution the same as bimodal distribution?

No. A distribution may be non-skewed and bimodal or skewed and bimodal. Bimodal means that the distribution has two modes, or two local maxima on the curve. Visually, one can see two peaks on the distribution curve. Mixture problems (combination of two random variables with different modes) can produce bimodal curves. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bimodal_distribution A distribution is skewed when the mean and median are different values. A distribution is negatively skewed when the mean is less than the median and positively skewed if the mean is greater than the median. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skewness


Is the uniform probability distribution is symmetric about the mode?

Yes, the uniform probability distribution is symmetric about the mode. Draw the sketch of the uniform probability distribution. If we say that the distribution is uniform, then we obtain the same constant for the continuous variable. * * * * * The uniform probability distribution is one in which the probability is the same throughout its domain, as stated above. By definition, then, there can be no value (or sub-domain) for which the probability is greater than elsewhere. In other words, a uniform probability distribution has no mode. The mode does not exist. The distribution cannot, therefore, be symmetric about something that does not exist.


What is the variance of the uniform distribution function?

the variance of the uniform distribution function is 1/12(square of(b-a)) and the mean is 1/2(a+b).


Can the Empirical Rule of probability be applied to the uniform probability distribution?

Yes, except that if you know that the distribution is uniform there is little point in using the empirical rule.

Related questions

Is normal distribution bimodal?

no


How can the measures of center and spread of a bimodal distribution be described?

By specifying the centre and standard deviation of the distribution but also mentioning the fact that it is bimodal and identifying the modes.


Does a normal probability distribution include a bimodal distribution?

No, the normal distribution is strictly unimodal.


What if there a two modal class?

The distribution is bimodal. That is all there is to it.


Is considerably skewed distribution the same as bimodal distribution?

No. A distribution may be non-skewed and bimodal or skewed and bimodal. Bimodal means that the distribution has two modes, or two local maxima on the curve. Visually, one can see two peaks on the distribution curve. Mixture problems (combination of two random variables with different modes) can produce bimodal curves. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bimodal_distribution A distribution is skewed when the mean and median are different values. A distribution is negatively skewed when the mean is less than the median and positively skewed if the mean is greater than the median. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skewness


Is A distribution is noticeably bimodal if the means of each distribution are separated by at least one standard deviation?

This could be a bimodal. There are many other factors that would have to be taken into account as well.


What is a bimodality?

A bimodality is a bimodal condition - a distribution which has two modes.


What Do You Call A Data Set With Two Modes?

A bimodal distribution.


A type of selection where the normal distribution is pushed apart into two separate peaks?

Bimodal Distribution


What is name of 2 modes?

A distribution with 2 modes is said to be bimodal.


Why is there a bimodal distribution of elevations on the surface of the earth?

The bimodal distribution of elevations on Earth's surface is due to the presence of both ocean basins and continental landmasses. The ocean basins are generally lower in elevation, while the continental landmasses have higher elevations, resulting in the bimodal distribution commonly observed.


What do you do when you have two modes in maths?

Nothing. You simply have a distribution that is bimodal. You report both modes.